A 30-year-old male sustains an inversion injury while playing basketball. He presents with pain, swelling, and bruising over the lateral aspect of his ankle. The anterior drawer test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Achilles tendon rupture B) Ankle sprain C) Tibial fracture D) Plantar fasciitis E) Ankle dislocation Correct Answer: B) Ankle sprain Explanation: Ankle sprain is the most common injury from inversion, which causes ligamentous injury (especially to the lateral ligaments, such as the anterior talofibular ligament). A positive anterior drawer test indicates anterior talofibular ligament instability. Achilles tendon rupture (A) is typically associated with sudden calf pain and inability to plantarflex the foot. Tibial fracture (C) is less likely to occur with an inversion injury, as this typically affects the ankle joint itself. Plantar fasciitis (D) is a chronic condition that causes heel pain, not acute trauma. Ankle dislocation (E) would cause severe deformity and would likely be associated with a much more severe injury. Key Tips for PLAB 1: ✅ Inversion injury = Ankle sprain, particularly in sports ✅ Anterior drawer test = Indicates lateral ligament instability ✅ Management = R.I.C.E (rest, ice, compression, elevation), possible immobilization
