A 45-year-old woman presents with a one-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She has completed childbearing and desires definitive treatment. Pelvic ultrasound reveals multiple uterine fibroids, and endometrial biopsy is normal. What is the most appropriate management for this patient? A) Oral contraceptives B) Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (IUD) C) Uterine artery embolization D) Hysterectomy Answer: Hysterectomy Explanation: For a patient with completed childbearing who presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and uterine fibroids and desires definitive treatment, hysterectomy is often the most appropriate management option. This procedure provides a permanent solution for fibroid-related symptoms. Oral contraceptives (choice A) and levonorgestrel-releasing IUDs (choice B) are typically used for medical management but do not provide a definitive cure. Uterine artery embolization (choice C) is an alternative to surgery but is not considered a definitive treatment in all cases.
