A 30-year-old man with HIV (CD4 count 180) presents with headache, fever, and confusion. CSF shows high opening pressure, lymphocytes, and cryptococcal antigen positivity. What is the most appropriate treatment? A) IV acyclovir B) Oral fluconazole C) IV amphotericin B + flucytosine D) IV ceftriaxone E) Oral co-trimoxazole . Correct Answer: C) IV amphotericin B + flucytosine . Explanation: Cryptococcal meningitis in HIV requires induction with amphotericin + flucytosine, followed by fluconazole maintenance.
