A 60-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation (on warfarin) presents with sudden-onset right-sided weakness and expressive dysphasia. CT head shows an ischemic stroke in the left middle cerebral artery territory. What is the most appropriate next step? A) Thrombolysis with alteplase B) Continue warfarin and monitor INR C) Switch to dabigatran D) Immediate mechanical thrombectomy E) Aspirin 300 mg . Correct Answer: E) Aspirin 300 mg . Explanation: Thrombolysis is contraindicated in patients on warfarin (risk of hemorrhage). Immediate aspirin is given for ischemic stroke unless hemorrhage is confirmed
