A 33-year-old woman has experienced low grade fevers, night sweats, and generalized malaise for the past 2 months. On physical examination she has non-tender cervical and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. A cervical lymph node biopsy is performed. On Microscopy the following is seen.... What your diagnosis ??
firstly this section is not very popular...ppl r mostly into fast food ( Spot Diagnosis / pattern recognition ). So ur chances of getting a response increases if u post in the 'fast food section ' P: secondly no 2 'lymph node specialists' would ever agree or come to a common diagnosis based on lymph node histology...so u shud not expect the 'masses' to comment, unless of-course it is a clear cut case. Thankfully we have 'immunophenotyping' these days, that doesn't care about the reputation of a pathologist and wud say it the way it is. For instance - lymphocyte predominant ( CD 20 + ) and the nodular lymphocyte predominant ( CD 45 + ) can be hard to distinguish, becos all of them hav some sclerosis and u may end up misdiagnosing....but immunophenotyping will help distinguish. now coming to the slides u posted slide 1 slide 2 both are 2 different histological subtypes and can't be from the same patient.....even if they are from different lymph nodes. why ? becos it is the same process that has spread from node to node and hence will have the same identity ( although the reactive cells can be in diff. proportions in diff nodes and also in diff sections from the same node ) But to ans ur question :: both slides are of patients with 'Hodgkin's Lymphoma', with the first one showing 'Nodular Sclerosing type' histology with 'lacunar type - RS cells' and the second slide showing 'mixed cellularity' with 'classical RS cell'.
